MCQ
1.In 1900-MHz band, a mobile station needs more
a. Instructions
b.Power
c.Signals
d.Frames
ANS: B
2. Traffic channels in forward transmission of telephony, carrying digitized voice from
the base station to the mobile stations are Channels 8 to 31 and
a.32 to 40
b.32 to 63
c.32 to 60
d.33 to 63
ANS: d
3. The smallest of the short range wireless networks, designed to be embedded in mobile
devices such as cell phones and credit cards
a.Pervasive Computing
b.Mobile Computing
c.Personal Area Network(PAN)
d.Near-Field Communication (NFC)
ans: D
4. The modulation technique used for mobile communication systems during world war
II was
a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. ASK
d. FSK
ANS: B
5. ———– introduced Frequency Modulation for mobile communication systems in
1935.
a.Edwin Armstrong
b.Albert Einstein
c.Galileo Galilei
d.David Bohm
ANS: A
6. The early FM push-to-talk telephone systems were used in
a. Simplex mode
b. Half duplex mode
c. Full duplex mode
d. None of these
ANS: B
7.DECT stands for
a.Digital European Cellular Telex
b.Digitized Emergency CellularTelephone
c.Digital European CordlessTelephone
d.Digital European Cellular Telephone
ANS: C
8. World’s first cellular system was developed by
a.Nippon Telephone andTelegraph (NTT)
b.Bellcore and Motorola
c.AT&T Bell Laboratories
d.Qualcomm
ANS: A
9.Paging systems were based on
a. Simplex systems
b. Half duplex systems
c. Full duplex systems
d. None of these
ANS: A
10. Paging systems could be used to
a. Send numeric messages
b. Send alphanumeric messages
c. Voice message
d. All of these
ANS: D
11.IMT-2000 is a digital mobile system that functions as
a.Transmitter
b.Receiver
c.Transceiver
d.None of these
ANS: A
12.Carrier frequency of a TV remote control is in the range of
a.Infra red
b.< 100 MHz
c. < 1 GHz
d. < 2 GHz
ANS: A
13.Half duplex system for communication has
a. Communication in single direction
b.Communication in single direction at a time
c.Communication in both directions at the same time
d.None of these
ANS: B
14.MIN stands for
a. Mobile Identification Number
b. Mobile Internet
c. Mobility In Network
d. None of these
ANS:A
15.The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is
a.MSC
b.Roamer
c.Hand off
d.Forward channel
ANS: C
16.PCN is
a.Wireless concept of making calls
b.For receiving calls
c.Irrespective of the location of the user
d.All of these
ANS: D
17. IMT-2000 is a digital mobile system that functions as
a. Pager
b. Cordless
c. Low earth orbit satellites
d. All of these
ANS: D
18. NADC is a 2G standard for
a. TDMA
b. CDMA
c. TDMA & CDMA
d. None of these
ANS: A
19. 2G standards support
a. Limited internet browsing
b. Short Messaging Service
c. Limited internet browsing &Short Messaging Service
d.None of these
ANS: C
20. Radio capacity may be increased in cellular concept by
a. Increase in radio spectrum
b. Increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
c. Increase frequency
d. None of these
ANS: B
21. Mobile commerce transactions targets to individuals in specific locations, at specific
times
a. Location-Based Commerce(L-Commerce)
b. Personal Area Network (PAN)
c. Near-Field Communication(NFC)
d.Mobile Commerce (M-Commerce)
ANS: A
22. A computer environment where virtually every object has processing power together
with wireless or wired connections to a global network
a. Mobile Portal
b. Mobile Computing
c. Voice Portal
d. Pervasive Computing
ANS: D
23. A wireless technology that allows manufacturers to attach tags with antennas and
computer chips to goods and then track their movement through radio signals
a. Near-Field Communication (NFC)
b. Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN)
c. Wireless Fidelity (WiFi)
d. Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID)Technology
ANS: D
24. A high-bandwidth wireless technology with transmission speeds in excess of 100
Mbps that can be used for applications such as streaming multimedia from, say, a
personal computer to a television
a. Satellite Radio
b. Infrared
c. Ultra-Wideband (UWB)
d. Propagation Delay
ANS: C
25.Uses radio-wave frequencies to send data directly between transmitters and receivers
a. Satellite Transmission
b. Microwave Transmission
c. Hotspot
d. Radio Transmission
ANS: D
26. Chip technology that enables short-range connections between wireless devices
a. Wireless
b.Hotspot
c. Voice Portal
d. Bluetooth
ANS: D
27. A real-time connection between a mobile decide and other computing environments,
such as the Internet and an intranet
a. Mobile Wallet
b. Mobile Computing
c. Pervasive Computing
d. Mobile Portal
ANS: B
28. A wireless system that beams uninterrupted, near CD-quality music to your radio from
satellites
a. Infrared
b. Satellite Transmission
c. Satellite Radio
d.Wireless
ANS: C
29. A portal that aggregate and provides content and services for mobile users
a. Mobile Portal
b. Mobile Wallet
c. Voice Portal
d. Mobile Computing
ANS: A
30. Any delay in communications die to signal transmission time through a physical
medium
a. Propagation Delay
b. Voice Portal
c. Mobile Portal
d. Mobile Wallet
ANS: A
31. A Web site with an audio interface
a. Mobile Portal
b. Bluetooth
c. Voice Portal
d. Hotspot
ANS: C
32. SDMA technique employs
a. Smart antenna technology
b. Use of spatial locations of mobile units within the cell
c.More battery consumption
d.Smart antenna technology and Use of spatial locations of mobile units within
the cell
ANS: D
33.The advantage of using SDMA over other spread spectrum technique is
a. Mobile station battery consumption is low
b.Reduced spectral efficiency
c. Increased spectral efficiency
d. Mobile station battery consumption is low and Increased spectral efficiency
ANS: D
34. The increased capacity of SDMA due to
a. focused signal transmitted into narrow transmission beams
b.smart antennas pointing towards mobile stations
c.use of different frequencies at same time slot
d.focused signal transmitted into narrow transmission beams and smart antennas
pointing towards mobile stations
ANS: D
35. Disadvantages of packet radio are
a.Induced delays
b.Low spectral efficiency
c. Large spectrum required
d. Induced delays and Low spectral efficiency
ANS: D
36. Pure ALOHA is a
a. Random access protocol
b. Scheduled access protocol
c. Hybrid access protocol
d. Demand access protocol
ANS: A
37. The increase in number of users in PURE ALOHA causes
a. Increase in delay
b. Increase in probability of collision
c. Increase in spectrum
d. Increase in delay and Increase in probability of collision
ANS: D
38. OFDM is a technique of
1. Encoding digital data
2. Multiple carrier frequencies
3. Wide band digital communication
4. 4G mobile communication
a. 1,2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four correct
ANS: D
39. Advantages of using OFDM include
1. Avoids complex equalizers
2. Low symbol rate and guard interval
3. Avoids ISI
4. Multiple users at same frequency
a. 1,2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d.All the four correct
ANS: D
40. The troubles that OFDM faces over other spread spectrum techniques are
1. Sensitivity to Doppler shift
2. Frequency synchronization problems3. Time synchronization problems
4. Low efficiency due to guard intervals
a. 1,2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four correct
ANS: C
41.The guard interval is provided in OFDM
a.To eliminate the need of pulse shaping filter
b. To eliminate ISI
c. High symbol rate
d. To eliminate the need of pulse shaping filter and To eliminate ISI
ANS: D
*****************************************************************************
*****************************************************************************
PART 2
1. Radio capacity may be increased in cellular concept by
a. Increase in radio spectrum b. Increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
c. Increase frequency d. None of these
ANS: b
2. Mobile commerce transactions targets to individuals in specific locations, at specific times
a. Location-Based Commerce (L-Commerce)
b. Personal Area Network (PAN)
c. Near-Field Communication (NFC)
d. Mobile Commerce (M-Commerce)
ANS: a
3. A computer environment where virtually every object has processing power together with wireless or wired connections to a global network
a. Mobile Portal b. Mobile Computing
c. Voice Portal d. Pervasive Computing
ANS: d
4. A wireless technology that allows manufacturers to attach tags with antennas and
computer chips to goods and then track their movement through radio signals
a. Near-Field Communication (NFC)
b. Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN)
c. Wireless Fidelity (WiFi)
d. Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID) Technology
ANS: d
5. A high-bandwidth wireless technology with transmission speeds in excess of
100 Mbps that can be used for applications such as streaming multimedia from, say, a personal computer to a television
a. Satellite Radio b. Infrared
c. Ultra-Wideband (UWB) d. Propagation Delay
ANS: c
6. Uses radio-wave frequencies to send data directly between transmitters and receivers
a. Satellite Transmission b. Microwave Transmission
c. Hotspot d. Radio Transmission
ANS: d
7. Chip technology that enables short-range connections between wireless devices
a. Wireless b. Hotspot
c. Voice Portal d. Bluetooth
ANS: d
8. A real-time connection between a mobile decide and other computing environments,
such as the Internet and an intranet
a. Mobile Wallet b. Mobile Computing
c. Pervasive Computing d. Mobile Portal
ANS: b
9. A wireless system that beams uninterrupted, near CD-quality music to your radio from satellites
a. Infrared b. Satellite Transmission
c. Satellite Radio d. Wireless
ANS: c
10. A portal that aggregate and provides content and services for mobile users
a. Mobile Portal b. Mobile Wallet
c. Voice Portal d. Mobile Computing
ANS: a
11. Any delay in communications die to signal transmission time through a physical medium
a. Propagation Delay b. Voice Portal
c. Mobile Portal d. Mobile Wallet
ANS: a
12. A Web site with an audio interface
a. Mobile Portal b. Bluetooth
c. Voice Portal d. Hotspot
ANS: c
13. SDMA technique employs
a. Smart antenna technology b. Use of spatial locations of mobile units within the cell
c. More battery consumption d. Smart antenna technology and Use of spatial locations of mobile units within the cell
ANS: d
14. The advantage of using SDMA over other spread spectrum technique is
a. Mobile station battery consumption is low
b. Reduced spectral efficiency
c. Increased spectral efficiency d. Mobile station battery consumption is low and Increased spectral efficiency
ANS: d
15. The increased capacity of SDMA due to
a. focused signal transmitted into narrow transmission beams
b. smart antennas pointing towards mobile stations
c. use of different frequencies at same time slot
d. focused signal transmitted into narrow transmission beams and smart antennas pointing towards mobile stations
ANS: d
16. Disadvantages of packet radio are
a. Induced delays b. Low spectral efficiency
c. Large spectrum required d. Induced delays and Low spectral efficiency
ANS: d
17. Pure ALOHA is a
a. Random access protocol b. Scheduled access protocol
c. Hybrid access protocol d. Demand access protocol
ANS: a
18. The increase in number of users in PURE ALOHA causes
a. Increase in delay b. Increase in probability of collision
c. Increase in spectrum d. Increase in delay and Increase in probability of collision
ANS: d
19. OFDM is a technique of
1. Encoding digital data
2. Multiple carrier frequencies
3. Wide band digital communication
4. 4G mobile communication
a. 1,2 and 3 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct d. All the four correct
ANS: d
20. Advantages of using OFDM include
1. Avoids complex equalizers
2. Low symbol rate and guard interval
3. Avoids ISI
4. Multiple users at same frequency
a. 1,2 and 3 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct d. All the four correct
ANS: d
*****************************************************************************
*****************************************************************************
PART 3
1. Telecommunications in which electromagnetic waves carry the signal between communicating devices
Bluetooth
Hotspot
CORRECT: Wireless
Infrared
ANS: c
2. Phones the provide two-way radio communications over a cellular network of base stations with seamless handoffs
Bluetooth
Infrared
CORRECT: Cellular Phones
Mobile Wallet
ANS: c
3. A computer network used for communication among computer devices close to one person
CORRECT: Personal Area Network (PAN)
Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN)
Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
Mesh Network
ANS: a
4. A network composed of motes in the physical environment that "wake up" at intervals to transmit data to their nearest neighbor mote
Mobile Portal
CORRECT: Mesh Network
Bluetooth
Hotspot
ANS: B
5. A small geographical perimeter within which a wireless access point provides service to a number of users
CORRECT: Hotspot
Infrared
Wireless
Bluetooth
ANS: a
6. A wireless system that uses microwaves for high-volume, long-distance, point-to-point communication
Satellite Radio
CORRECT: Microwave Transmission
Satellite Transmission
Radio Transmission
ANS: b
7. A wireless system that uses satellites to enable users to determine their position anywhere on Earth
Mobile Computing
Propagation Delay
Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN)
CORRECT: Global Positioning Systems (GPS)
ANS: d
8. A technology that allows users to make purchases with a single click from their mobile devices
CORRECT: Mobile Wallet
Mobile Computing
Voice Portal
Mobile Portal
ANS: a
9. The smallest of the short range wireless networks, designed to be embedded in mobile devices such as cell phones and credit cards
Pervasive Computing
Mobile Computing
Personal Area Network (PAN)
CORRECT: Near-Field Communication (NFC)
ANS: d
10. An antenna connecting a mobile device to a wired local area network
Mobile Computing
Wireless
CORRECT: Wireless Access Point
Wireless Fidelity (WiFi)
ANS: c
11. Networks of interconnected, battery-powered, wireless sensors placed in the physical environment
CORRECT: Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN)
Wireless Access Point
Personal Area Network (PAN)
Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
ANS: a
12. The wireless transmission and receipt of data gathered from remote sensors
Radio Transmission
Microwave Transmission
CORRECT: Satellite Transmission
Satellite Radio
ANS: c
13. Mobile commerce transactions targets to individuals in specific locations, at specific times
CORRECT: Location-Based Commerce (L-Commerce)
Personal Area Network (PAN)
Near-Field Communication (NFC)
Mobile Commerce (M-Commerce)
ANS: a
14. A set of standards for wireless local area networks based on the IEEE 802.11 standard
Ultra-Wideband (UWB)
Wireless Access Point
Wireless
CORRECT: Wireless Fidelity (WiFi)
ANS: d
15. A computer network in a limited geographical area that uses wireless transmission for communication
Personal Area Network (PAN)
CORRECT: Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
Wireless Fidelity (WiFi)
Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN)
ANS: a
16. A type of wireless transmission that uses red light not usually visible to human eyes
Bluetooth
CORRECT: Infrared
Hotspot
Wireless
ANS: b
********************************************************************************
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PART 4
1. The shape of the cellular region for maximum radio coverage is
a. Circular a. Square
b. Oval c. Hexagon
ans: Hexagon
2. Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because
a. It uses the maximum area for coverage
b. Fewer number of cells are required
c. It approximates circular radiation pattern
d. All of these
ans: d All of these
3. Centre excited hexagonal cells use
a. Sectored directional antennas b. Omni directional antennas
c. Yagi uda antennas d. None of these
ans: b
4. The advantage of using frequency reuse is
a. Increased capacity b. Limited spectrum is required
c. Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
d. All of these
ans: All of these
5. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
a. Application b. Host to host
c. Internet d. Network Access
ans: Host to host
The four layers of the TCP/IP stack (also called the DoD model) are
Application/Process, Host-to-Host, Internet, and Network Access. The
Host-to-Host layer is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI
model.
6. You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP
address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will you
use to accomplish this?
a. SMTP b. SNMP
c. DHCP d. ARP
ans:c DHCP
7. The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP stack) has four layers. Which layer of the DoD
model is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model?
a. Application b. Host to host
c. Internet d. Network Access
ans: c. Internet
The four layers of the DoD model are Application/Process, Host-to-Host,
Internet, and Network Access. The Internet layer is equivalent to the
Network layer of the OSI model.
8. Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP?
a. FTP b. SMTP
c. Telnet d. DNS
ans: d DNS
DNS and some other services work on both TCP and the UDP protocols. DNS uses TCP for zone exchanges between servers and UDP when a client is trying to resolve a hostname to an IP address.
9. Length of Port address in TCP/IP is _________
a. 4bit long b. 16bit long
c. 32bit long d. 8 bit long
ans: b
Explanation: TCP and UDP port numbers are 16 bits in length. So, valid
port numbers can theoretically take on values from 0 to 65,535. These
values are divided into ranges for different purposes, with certain
ports reserved for particular uses.
10. TCP/IP layer is equivalent to combined Session, Presentation and ______
a. Network layer b. Application layer
c. Transport layer d. Physical layer
ans:b
Explanation: TCP/IP network model is a hierarchical protocol made up of
interactive modules, each of which provides a specific functionality;
however, the modules are not necessarily interdependent. It is
equivalent to combined session, presentation and application layer.
11. How many levels of addressing is provided in TCP/IP protocol?
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. Four
ans: d
Explanation: Four levels of addresses are used in the internet employing
the TCP/IP protocols. They are physical (link) addresses, logical (IP)
addresses, port addresses, and specific addresses.
12. Virtual terminal protocol is an example of _______
a. Network layer b. Application layer
c. Transport layer d. Physical layer
ans:b
Explanation: In open systems, a virtual terminal (VT) is an application
service. It allows host terminals on a multi-user network to interact
with other hosts regardless of terminal type and characteristics.
13. TCP/IP is related to _______
a. ARPANET b. OSI
c. DECNET d. ALOHA
ans: a
Explanation: In 1983, TCP/IP protocols replaced NCP (Network Control
Program) as the ARPANET’s principal protocol. And ARPANET then became
one component of the early Internet. The starting point for host-to-host
communication on the ARPANET in 1969 was the 1822 protocol, which
defined the transmission of messages to an IMP.
14. A device operating at network layer is called ____
a. Router b. Equalizer
c. Bridge d. Repeater
ans: a
Explanation: A router is a networking device that forwards data packets
between computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing
functions on the Internet. It supports different network layer
transmission standards. Each network interface is used to enable data
packets to be forwarded from one transmission system to another.
15. Several protocols for upper layers in bluetooth use _________
a. UDP b. HSP
c. ITC d. L2CAP
ans: d
Explanation: L2CAP is Logical Link, Control Adaptation Protocol Layer.
The logical unit link control adaptation protocol is equivalent to
logical link control sub layer of LAN. The ACL link uses L2CAP for data
exchange. The various function of L2CAP is segmentation and reassembly,
multiplexing and quality of service.
16. Protocols are set of rules to govern ______
a. Communication b. Standard
c. Metropolitan communication d. Bandwidth
ans: a
Explanation: A protocol is a set of rules that governs the
communications between computers on a network. These rules include
guidelines that regulate the characteristics of a network including
access method, allowed physical topologies, types of cabling, and speed
of data transfer.
17. An internet is a ______
a. Collection of WANS b. Network of networks
c. Collection of LANS d. Collection of identical LANS and WANS
ans: b
Explanation: Internet is a massive network of networks, a networking
infrastructure. It connects millions of computers together globally,
forming a network in which any computer can communicate with any other
computer as long as they are both connected to the Internet.
18. Checksum is used in Internet by several protocols although not at the ______
a. Session layer b. Transport layer
c. Network layer d. Data link layer
ans: d
Explanation: The checksum is used in the Internet by several protocols
although not at the data link layer. Like linear and cyclic codes, the
checksum is based on the concept of redundancy. Several protocols still
use the checksum for error detection.
19. In version field of IPv4 header, when machine is using some other version of IPv4 then
datagram is ______
a. Discarded b. Accepted
c. Interpreted d. Interpreted incorrectly
ans: a
Explanation: A 4 bit field defines the version of IPv4 protocol. This
field tells the software running in the processing machine that the
datagram has the format of version 4. If the machine is using some other
version of IPv4, the datagram is discarded rather than interpreted
incorrectly.
20. Network layer at source is responsible for creating a packet from data coming from
another ________
a. Station b. Link
c. Node d. Protocol
ans: d
Explanation: ‘The network layer at the source is responsible for
creating a packet from the data coming from another’ protocol (such as a
transport layer protocol or a routing protocol). The network layer is
responsible for checking its routing table to find the routing
information.
21. Phones the provide two-way radio communications over a cellular network of base
stations with seamless handoffs
a. Bluetooth b. Infrared
c. Cellular Phones d. Mobile Wallet
ans: Cellular Phones
22. A computer network used for communication among computer devices close to one
person
a. Personal Area Network (PAN)
b. Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN)
c. Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
d. Mesh Network
ans: a. Personal Area Network (PAN)
23. A network composed of motes in the physical environment that "wake up" at intervals
to transmit data to their nearest neighbor mote
a. Mobile Portal b. Mesh Network
c. Bluetooth d. Hotspot
ans:
24. A small geographical perimeter within which a wireless access point provides service
to a number of users
a. Hotspot b. Infrared
c. Wireless d. Bluetooth
ans: Hotspot
25. A technology that allows users to make purchases with a single click from their mobile
devices
a. Mobile Wallet b. Mobile Computing
c. Voice Portal d. Mobile Portal
ans:
26. Electronic commerce transactions that are conducted with a mobile device
a. Mobile Commerce (MCommerce)
b. Mobile Portal
c. Location-Based Commerce (L-Commerce)
d. Mobile Computing
ans: Mobile Commerce (M-Commerce)
27. 3G W-CDMA is also known as
a. UMTS b. DECT
c. DCS-1800 d. ETACS
ans: a. UMTS
28. Commonly used mode for 3G networks is
a. TDMA b. FDMA
c. TDD d. FDD
ans: d. FDD
29. The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is
a. 5MHz b. 2MHz
c. 500KHz d. 100KHz
ans: a. 5MHz
30. CDMA is
1. Spread spectrum technology
2. Using same communication medium
3. every user stays at a certain narrow band channel at a specific time period
4. each user has unique PN code
a. 1,2 and 3 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct d. All the four correct
ans: 1, 2 and 4 are correct
31. Global Positioning System uses
a. CDMA b. TDMA
c. SDMA d. FDMA
ans: CDMA
32. CDMA is advantageous over other Spread Spectrum techniques for
1. The privacy due to unique codes
2. It rejects narrow band interference
3. Resistance to multi path fading
4. Its ability to frequency reuse
a. 1,2 and 3 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct d. All the four correct
ans: All the four are correct
33. The wide band usage in CDMA helps in
1. Increased immunity to interference
2. Increased immunity to jamming
3. Multiple user access
4. Different spectrum allocation in different time slots
a. 1,2 and 3 are correct b. 2,3 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct d. All the four correct
ans: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
34. The advantages of using a CDMA technique over other spread spectrum techniques are
1. Increased capacity
2. Easier handoff
3. Better measure of security
4. Multiple users occupy different spectrum at a time
a. 1,2 and 3 are correct b. 2,3 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct d. All the four correct
ans: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
35. FHMA is
1. Spread spectrum technology
2. Using same communication medium
3. every user has assigned unique frequency slot
4. each user has unique PN code
a. 1 and 2 are correct b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct d. All the four correct
ans: All the four are correct
36. CDMA2000 1xEV provides high speed data access with channel allocation of
a. 5MHz b. 50 MHz
c. 1.25 MHz d. 4MHz
ans: c
37. In TD-SDMA, there is a frame of _______ milliseconds and the frame is divided into
_____ time slots.
a. 5, 7 b. 7, 5
c. 2, 5 d. 5, 2
ans: 5, 7
38. The advantages of FDMA over TDMA includes
1. Division is simpler
2. Propagation delays are eliminated
3. Cheaper filters with less complicated logic functions
4. Linearity
a. 1), 2) and 3) are correct b. 1) and 2) are correct
c. 1) and 4) are correct d. All four are correct
ans: 1 and 2 are correct
39. A real-time connection between a mobile decide and other computing environments,
such as the Internet and an intranet
a. Mobile Wallet b. Mobile Computing
c. Pervasive Computing d. Mobile Portal
ans: Mobile Portal
40. The modulation technique used for mobile communication systems during world war
II was
a. Amplitude modulation b. Frequency modulation
c. ASK d. FSK
ans: Frequency modulation
41. The interference between the neighboring base stations is avoided by
a. Assigning different group of channels
b. Using transmitters with different power level
c. Using different antennas d. All of these
ans: a
42. The shape for the cellular region for maximum radio coverage is
a. Circular b. Square
c. Oval d. Hexagon
ans: Hexagon
43. Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because
a. It uses the maximum area for coverage
b. Fewer number of cells are required
c. It approximates circular radiation pattern
d. All of these
ans: All of the above
44. Spectrum Efficiency of a cellular network is
a. The traffic carried by whole network
b. The traffic carried per cell divided by the bandwidth of the system and the area of a cell
c. Both b and c
ans: Both b and c
45. In Handoff
a. Process of transferring the call to the new base station
b. Transfers the call
c. New channel allocation is done
d. All of these
ans: d
46. In a fixed channel assignment strategy, if all the assigned channels are occupied, the
call
a. Gets transferred to another cell
b. Gets blocked
c. Is kept on waiting d. All of these
ans: Gets blocked
47. In a fixed channel assignment strategy
a. Each cell is assigned a predetermined set of frequencies
b. The call is served by unused channels of the cell
c. The call gets blocked if all the channels of the cell are occupied
d. All of these
ans: d
48. In a dynamic channel assignment strategy,
a. Voice channels are not permanently assigned
b. The serving base station requests for a channel from MSC
c. MSC allocates the channel according to the predetermined algorithm
d. All of these
ans: d
49. Advantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is
a. Blocking is reduced b. Capacity of the system is increased
c. Blocking is reduced and Capacity of the system is increased
d. None of these
ans: c
50. Disadvantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is
a. More storage required b. Calculations and analysis is increased
c. More storage required and Calculations and analysis is increased
d. None of these
ans: c
51. What is the full form of UMTS?
a. Universal Mobile Telephone
System
b. Ubiquitous Mobile Telephone System
c. Ubiquitous Mobile Telemetry
System
d. Universal Machine Telemedicine
System
ans:a
52. UMTS uses which multiple access technique?
a. CDMA b. TDMA
c. FDMA d. SDMA
ans:a
53. UMTS does not has backward compatibility with ____
a. GSM b. IS-136
c. IS-95 d. GPRS
ans:c
54. UMTS is also known as _____
a. IS-95 b. GPRS
c. CdmaOne d. W-CDMA
ans:d
55. What is the chip rate of W-CDMA?
a. 1.2288 Mcps b. 3.84 Mcps
c. 270.833 Ksps d. 100 Mcps
ans:b
56. How much packet data rate per user is supported by W-CDMA if the user is
stationary?
a. 2.048 Kbps b. 100 Mbps
c. 2.048 Mbps d. 1 Gbps
ans:c
57. How much increase in spectral efficiency is provided by W-CDMA in comparison to
GSM?
a. Two times b. Three times
c. No increase d. Six times
ans:d
58. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 3G network?
a. Communication over VoIP b. Unparalleled network capacity
c. Multi-megabit Internet access d. LTE based network
ans:d
59. What is the term used by ITU for a set of global standards of 3G systems?
a. IMT 2000 b. GSM
c. CDMA d. EDGE
ans:a
60. What is 3GPP?
a. Project based on W-CDMA b. Project based on cdma2000
c. Project based on 2G standards d. Project based on 2.5G standards
ans:a
61. What is 3GPP2?
a. Project based on W-CDMA b. Project based on cdma2000
c. Project based on 2G standards d. Project based on 2.5G standards
ans: b
62. What does the number 2000 in IMT-2000 signifies?
a. Year b. Number of subscribers per cell
c. Number of cells d. Area (Km)
ans: a
63. Which of the following is not an application of third generation network?
a. Global Positioning System
(GPS)
b. Video conferencing
c. Mobile TV d. Downloading rate upto 1 Gbps
ans:d
64. Which of the following is/are the main part(s) of basic cellular system.
a. A mobile Unit b. A cell Site
c. A mobile Telephone
Switching Office
d. All of these
ans: d
65. What are the main reasons for using cellular systems?
a. to support many users,
low power and
localization.
b. is profit maximization for service
providers.
c. are user localization and
frequency reuse.
d. They are easy to use.
ans:a
66. State whether True or False.
i) The cells or subdivisions of a geographical area are always hexagonal.
ii) A land to Mobile call originates through the Telephone exchange.
a. True, False b. False, True
c. False, False d. True, True
ans: b
67. The basic GSM is based on ____________________ traffic channels.
a. connection oriented. b. connection less.
c. packet switching. d. circuit switching
ans: a
68. VLR and HLR in GSM systems are......................................
a. Gateways for outer
connectivity.
b. Databases of registered users
c. Routers and call management
servers.
d. System setup files.
ans: b
69. Main reasons for a handover in GSM are
a. Weak signal in cell and heavy
cell load
b. Heavy cell load
c. Mobile station moves from
cell to cell
d. Low signal strength
ans: a
70. Main features of 3G include (in comparison to 2G)
a. Better voice quality b. Higher data rates
c. Better voice quality and
higher and flexible data rates
d. Power management
ans:c
71. GPRS needs the following parts of a typical GSM
a. Does not need any part of
GSM
b. The packet-switched core for data
transmission
c. The circuit-switched core for
localization and authentication
d. None of these
ans:c
72. Why are waves with a very low frequency not used for data transmission in computer
networks?
a. They require large antennas,
have lower bandwidth and are
difficult to manage in cells
and frequency reuse schemes
b. They require small antennas and have
higher bandwidth
c. They do not penetrate material d. They can be easily shielded.
ans: a
73. What is the access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?
a. device that allows wireless
devices to connect to a wired
network
b. wireless devices itself
c. both device that allows
wireless devices to connect to
a wired network and wireless
devices itself
d. all the nodes in the network
ans: a
74. In wireless ad-hoc network _________
a. access point is not required b. access point is must
c. nodes are not required d. all nodes are access points
ans: a
75. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a. CDMA b. CSMA/CA
c. ALOHA d. CSMA/CD
ans: b
76. In wireless distribution system __________
a. multiple access point is interconnected with each other
b. there is no access point
c. only one access point exists d. access points are not required
ans: a
77. A wireless network interface controller can work in _______
a. infrastructure mode b. ad-hoc mode
c. both infrastructure mode and
ad-hoc mode
d. WDS mode
ans: c
78. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of ________
a. connected basic service sets b. all stations
c. all access points d. connected access points
ans: a
79. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.
a. time division multiplexing b. orthogonal frequency division
multiplexing
c. space division multiplexing d. channel division multiplexing
ans: b
80. Which one of the following events is not possible in wireless LAN?
a. collision detection b. acknowledgement of data frames
c. multi-mode data transmission d. connection to wired networks
ans: a
81. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?
a. security algorithm for ethernet b. security algorithm for wireless networks
c. security algorithm for usb communication
d. security algorithm for emails
ans: b
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PART 5
1. What is WPA? a. wi-fi protected access b. wired protected access c. wired process access d. wi-fi process access
1.a
2. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and DEC net? a. Ethernet 802.3 b. Ethernet 802.2 c. Ethernet II d. Ethernet SNAP
2. c
3. Consider a situation in which you are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you are running NetWare 4.11 and you cannot communicate with your router. What is the likely problem?
a. NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation b. NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation c. Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11 d. NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
3. a
4. NetWare IPX addressing uses a network number and a node number. Which statement is not true?
a. The network address is administratively assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits long b. The node address is always administratively assigned c. The node address is usually the MAC address d. If the MAC address is used as the node address, then IPX eliminates the use of ARP
4.b
5. Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3–network layer—of the OSI model? a. IPX b. NCP c. SPX d. NetBIOS
5.a
6. Which NetWare protocol provides link-state routing?
a. NLSP b. RIP c. SAP d. NCP
6.a
7. As a system administrator, you want to debug IGRP but are worried that the “debug IP IGRP transaction” command will flood the console. What is the command that you should use?
a. Debug IP IGRP event b. Debug IP IGRP-events c. Debug IP IGRP summary d. Debug IP IGRP events
7.d
8. What does the following series of commands “Router IGRP 71 network” accomplish? 10.0.0.0 router IGRP 109 network 172.68.7.0 a. It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0 b. It loads IGRP for networks 109 and 71 c. It disables RIP d. It disables all routing protocols
8.a
9. The “IPX delay number” command will allow an administrator to change the default settings. What are the default settings?
a. For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks b. For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN interfaces, one tick c. For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN interfaces, five ticks d. For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN interfaces, zero Ticks
9.a
10. As a system administrator, you need to set up one Ethernet interface on the Cisco router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether encapsulations. Which set of commands will accomplish this?
a. Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX network 6c b. Interface Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c c. Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX encapsulation sap
d. Interface Ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
10.d
11. What does the “IPX maximum-paths 2” command accomplish?
a. It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths b. It sets up routing to go to network 2 c. It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing d. It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are unequal metric paths
11. a
12. You want to enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one router interface. How do you do this?
a. The interface can handle multiple encapsulation types with no extra configuration b. Assign two network numbers, one for each encapsulation type c. Enable Novell-ether to run multiple encapsulation types
d. Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so you don’t have to configure anything
12. b
13. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its routing table by default? a. Every 30 seconds b. Every 60 seconds c. Every 90 seconds d. RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically
13.a
14. Which command displays RIP routing updates? a. Show IP route b. Debug IP rip c. Show protocols d. Debug IP route
14. b
15. Two connected routers are configured with RIP routing. What will be the result when a router receives a routing update that contains a higher-cost path to a network already in its routing table? a. The updated information will be added to the existing routing table Debug IP rip
b. The update will be ignored and no further action will occur Debug IP route c. The updated information will replace the existing routing table entry
d. The existing routing table entry will be deleted from the routing table and all routers will exchange routing updates to reach convergence
15. b
16. You type debug IP rip on your router console and see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to you with a metric of 16. What does this mean?
a. The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip b. The route has a delay of 16 microseconds Debug IP route c. The route is inaccessible d. The route is queued at 16 messages a second
16. c
17. Default administrative distance of a static route is ________ a. 0 b. 90 c. 100 d. 1
17. d
18. Which protocol gives a full route table update every 30 seconds? a. IEGRP b. RIP c. ICMP d. IP
19. _________ is the default administrative distance of RIP. a. 0 b. 90 c. 120 d. 130
20. Where should we use default routing? a. On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network b. Which have more than one exit path out of the network c. Minimum five exit paths out of the network d. Maximum five exit paths out of the network
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PART 6
1. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) cannot have more than 15 hops if infinity is defined as
a. 13 b. 14 c. 15 d. 16
b
2. Each node uses the shortest path tree protocol to construct its
a. Connections b. Routing table c. Graphs d. Network
b
3. In periodic update, a node sends its routing table normally after every
a. 10s b. 20s c. 30s d. 40s
c
4. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocols?
a. The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
b. The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
c. RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d. RIPv2 supports classless routing
b
5. What is route poisoning?
a. It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops the regular updates. The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
b. It is information received from a router that can’t be sent back to the originating router.RIPv2 supports classless routing
c. It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come up
d. It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity
d
6. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2?
a. It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1
b. It converges faster than RIPv1
c. It has the same timers as RIPv1
d. It is harder to configure than RIPv1
c
7. Which of the situations might not require multiple routing protocols in a network?
a. When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to the network
b. When you are migrating from one routing protocol to another
c. When you are using routers from multiple vendors
d. When there are host-based routers from multiple vendors
a
8. Which two routing protocols can be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router?
a. IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP
b. AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2
c. RIPv2 and IP EIGRP
d. IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP
c
9. Which is a reason for avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers between the same two routing domains?
a. Higher cost of two routers
b. Routing feedback
c. Cisco IOS incompatibility
d. Not possible to use two routers
b
10. What does administrative distance rank?
a. Metrics
b. Sources of routing information
c. Router reliability
d. Best paths
b
11. Which protocol maintains neighbor adjacencies?
a. RIPv2 and EIGRP
b. IGRP and EIGRP
c. RIPv2
d. EIGRP
c
12. Which routing protocol implements the diffusing update algorithm?
a. IS-IS b. IGRP c. EIGRP d. OSPF
c
13. Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops?
a. RIPv1 b. RIPv2 c. EIGRP d. OSPF
a
14. Military vehicles on a battlefield with no existing infrastructure will deploy ............... network.
a. MANET b. Cell Network c. LAN d. Wi-Fi
a
15. What is the type of network in which the topology change from time to time?
a. Wi-Fi b. Cell Network c. LAN d. MANET
d
16. The processes that keep track of all mobile hosts visiting the area is .................
a. Home agent b. Mobile agent c. Foreign agent d. User agent
c
17. Telecommunications in which electromagnetic waves carry the signal between communicating devices
a. Bluetooth b. Hotspot c. Wireless d. Infrared
c
18. A wireless system that uses microwaves for high-volume, long-distance, point-to-point communication
a. Satellite Radio b. Microwave Transmission c. Satellite Transmission d. Radio Transmission
b
19. A wireless system that uses satellites to enable users to determine their position anywhere on Earth
a. Mobile Computing b. Propagation Delay c. Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN) d. Global Positioning Systems (GPS)
d
20. The smallest of the short-range wireless networks, designed to be embedded in mobile devices such as cell phones and credit cards
a. Pervasive Computing b. Mobile Computing c. Personal Area Network (PAN) d. Near-Field Communication (NFC)
d
21. An antenna connecting a mobile device to a wired local area network a. Mobile Computing b. Wireless c. Wireless Access Point d. Wireless Fidelity (WiFi)
c
22. Networks of interconnected, battery-powered, wireless sensors placed in the physical environment
a. Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN) b. Wireless Access Point c. Personal Area Network (PAN) d. Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
a
23. The hosts which are basically stationary hosts who move from one fixed site to another from time to time but use the network only when they are physically connected to it are called ................
a. Migratory hosts b. Stationary hosts c. Mobile hosts d. Random hosts
a
24. The hosts who compute on the run and want to maintain their connections as they move around ...............
a. Migratory hosts b. Stationary hosts c. Mobile hosts d. Random hosts
c
25. What is the type of network in which the routers themselves are mobile? a. Wide Area Network b. Mobile Ad hoc Network c. Mobile Network d. Local Area Network
b
26. The geostationary satellite used for communication systems
a. rotates with the earth b. is positioned over equator c. remains stationary relative to the earth d. All of these
d
27. You can shut down an activity by calling its _______ method
a. onDestory() b. finishActivity() c. finish() d. None of these
c
28. The XML file that contains all the text that your application uses a. stack.xml b. text.xml c. strings.xml d. string.java
c
29. Which file specifies the minimum required Android SDK version your application supports?
a. main.xml b. R.java c. strings.xml d. AndroidManifest.xml
d
30. As an Android programmer, what version of Android should you use as your minimum development target?
a. Versions 1.6 or 2.0 b. Versions 1.0 or 1.1 c. Versions 1.2 or 1.3 d. Versions 2.3 or 3.0
a
31. Parent class of Activity?
a. object b. context c. activityGroup d. contextThemeWrapper
d
32. Although most people’s first thought when they think of Android is Google, Android is not actually owned by Google. Who owns the Android platform?
a. Oracle Technology b. Dalvik c. Open Handset Alliance d. What was the first phone released that ran the Android OS?
c
33. If there are multiple recycle bin for a hard disk
a. you can set the different size
for each recycles bin
b. you can choose which recycle bin to
use to store your deleted files
c. You can make any one of
them default recycle bin.
d. None of these
a
34. The 2G cellular network uses
a. TDMA/FDD b. CDMA/FDD
c. Digital modulation formats d. All of these
d
35. 2G CDMA standard – cdma one supports up to
a. 8 users b. 64 users
c. 32 users d. 116 users
b
36. TDMA is employed with a TDMA frame that has preamble. The preamble contains
Address of base station and subscribers
1. Synchronization information
2. Frequency allotted
3. Coded sequence
a. 1 and 2 are correct b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct d. All the four correct
a
37. Identify false statement
a. You can find deleted files in
recycle bin
b. You can restore any files in recycle bin
if you ever need
c. You can increase free space
on the disk by sending files in
recycle bin.
d. You can right-click and choose Empty
Recycle Bin to clean it at once
c
38. If the displayed system time and date are wrong, you can reset it using
a. Write b. Calendar
c. Write file. d. Control panel
d
39. You should save your computer from?
a. Viruses b. Time bombs
c. Worms d. All of these
d
40. World Wide Web is being a standard by
a. Worldwide corporation b. W3C
c. World Wide Consortium d. World Wide Web Standard
b
41. A co-processor
a. Is relatively easy to support in
software
b. Causes all processor to function
equally
c. Works with any application d. Is quite common in modern computer
a
42. Which of the following is program group?
a. Accessories b. Paint
c. Word d. All of above
a
43. What was the first phone released that ran the Android OS?
a. Google gPhone b. T-Mobile G1
c. Motorola Droid d. HTC Hero
b
44. A Microsoft Windows is …..an (a)
a. Operating system b. Graphics program
c. Word Processing d. Database program
a
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PART 7
1) The modulation technique used for mobile communication systems during world war II was
a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. ASK
d. FSK
ANSWER: Frequency modulation
2) ———– introduced Frequency Modulation for mobile communication systems in 1935.
a. Edwin Armstrong
b. Albert Einstein
c. Galileo Galilei
d. David Bohm
ANSWER: Edwin Armstrong
3) The early FM push-to-talk telephone systems were used in
a. Simplex mode
b. Half duplex mode
c. Full duplex mode
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Half duplex mode
4) DECT stands for
a. Digital European Cellular Telex
b. Digitized Emergency Cellular Telephone
c. Digital European Cordless Telephone
d. Digital European Cellular Telephone
ANSWER: Digital European Cordless Telephone
5) World’s first cellular system was developed by
a. Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)
b. Bellcore and Motorola
c. AT&T Bell Laboratories
d. Qualcomm
ANSWER: Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)
6) Paging systems were based on
a. Simplex systems
b. Half duplex systems
c. Full duplex systems
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Simplex systems
7) Paging systems could be used to
a. Send numeric messages
b. Send alphanumeric messages
c. Voice message
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
8) Garage door opener is a
a. Transmitter
b. Receiver
c. Transceiver
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Transmitter
9) Carrier frequency of a TV remote control is in the range
a. of Infra red
b. < 100 MHz
c. < 1 GHz
d. < 2 GHz
ANSWER: of Infra red
10) Half duplex system for communication has
a. Communication in single direction
b. Communication in single direction at a time
c. Communication in both directions at the same time
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Communication in single direction at a time
11) MIN stands for
a. Mobile Identification Number
b. Mobile Internet
c. Mobility In Network
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Mobile Identification Number
12) The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is
a. MSC
b. Roamer
c. Hand off
d. Forward channel
ANSWER: Hand off
13) PCN is
a. Wireless concept of making calls
b. For receiving calls
c. Irrespective of the location of the user
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
14) IMT-2000 is a digital mobile system that functions as
a. Pager
b. Cordless
c. Low earth orbit satellites
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
15) The 2G cellular network uses
a. TDMA/FDD
b. CDMA/FDD
c. Digital modulation formats
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
16) NADC is a 2G standard for
a. TDMA
b. CDMA
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: TDMA
17) 2G CDMA standard – cdma one supports up to
a. 8 users
b. 64 users
c. 32 users
d. 116 users
ANSWER: 64 users
18) 2G standards support
a. Limited internet browsing
b. Short Messaging Service
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a & b
19) The 2G GSM technology uses a carrier separation of
a. 1.25 MHz
b. 200 KHz
c. 30 KHz
d. 300 KHz
ANSWER: 200 KHz
20) 3G W-CDMA is also known as
a. UMTS
b. DECT
c. DCS-1800
d. ETACS
ANSWER: UMTS
21) Commonly used mode for 3G networks is
a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. TDD
d. FDD
ANSWER: FDD
22) The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is
a. 5MHz
b. 2MHz
c. 500KHz
d. 100KHz
ANSWER: 5MHz
23) CDMA2000 1xEV provides high speed data access with channel allocation of
a. 5 MHz
b. 50 MHz
c. 1.25 MHz
d. 4 MHz
ANSWER: 1.25 MHz
24) In TD-SDMA, there is a frame of _____milliseconds and the frame is divided into _____ time slots.
a. 5, 7
b. 7, 5
c. 2, 5
d. 5, 2
ANSWER: 5, 7
25) The interference between the neighboring base stations is avoided by
a. Assigning different group of channels
b. Using transmitters with different power level
c. Using different antennas
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Assigning different group of channels
26) Radio capacity may be increased in cellular concept by
a. Increase in radio spectrum
b. Increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
27) The shape of the cellular region for maximum radio coverage is
a. Circular
b. Square
c. Oval
d. Hexagon
ANSWER: Hexagon
28) Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because
a. It uses the maximum area for coverage
b. Fewer number of cells are required
c. It approximates circular radiation pattern
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
29) Centre excited hexagonal cells use
a. Sectored directional antennas
b. Omni directional antennas
c. Yagi uda antennas
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Omni directional antennas
30) Spectrum Efficiency of a cellular network is
a. The traffic carried by whole network
b. The traffic carried per cell divided by the bandwidth of the system and the area of a cell
c. Expressed in Erlang /MHz /km2
d. Both b and c
e. Both a and c
ANSWER: Both b and c
31) The advantage of using frequency reuse is
a. Increased capacity
b. Limited spectrum is required
c. Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
32) The strategies acquired for channel assignment are
a. Fixed
b. Dynamic
c. Regular
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
33) In a fixed channel assignment strategy, if all the assigned channels are occupied, the call
a. Gets transferred to another cell
b. Gets blocked
c. Is kept on waiting
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Gets blocked
34) In a fixed channel assignment strategy
a. Each cell is assigned a predetermined set of frequencies
b. The call is served by unused channels of the cell
c. The call gets blocked if all the channels of the cell are occupied
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
35) In a dynamic channel assignment strategy,
a. Voice channels are not permanently assigned
b. The serving base station requests for a channel from MSC
c. MSC allocates the channel according to the predetermined algorithm
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
36) Advantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is
a. Blocking is reduced
b. Capacity of the system is increased
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a & b
37) Disadvantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is
a. More storage required
b. Calculations and analysis is increased
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a & b
38) In Dynamic channel assignment, any channel which is being used in one cell can be reassigned simultaneously to another cell in the system at a reasonable distance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
39) In Handoff
a. Process of transferring the call to the new base station
b. Transfers the call
c. New channel allocation is done
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
40) Delay in handoffs is caused due to
a. Week signal conditions
b. High traffic conditions
c. Un availability of the channel
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
41) Inter system Handoffs are done
a. When mobile station moves in two cellular systems with different MSC
b. When mobile station moves between two cellular systems
c. When mobile station receives more power from other base station than the serving base station
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
42) When a fraction of assigned channel is reserved for handoffs, it is
a. Guard channel concept
b. Fixed channel assignment
c. Dynamic channel assignment
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Guard channel concept
43) While handoffs, the termination of call may be avoided by
a. Providing Guard channel
b. Queuing of handoffs
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a & b
44) Dwell time is the time for
a. A call within the cell
b. Hand off
c. Waiting for channel allocation
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A call within the cell
45) Dwell time depends upon
a. Interference
b. Distance between the subscriber and the base station
c. Propagation of call
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
46) In Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO), the handoff takes place when
a. The power received by the mobile station from other base station is more than the serving base station
b. The channel allocated is not available
c. The mobile station has no signal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: The power received by the mobile station from other base station is more than the serving base station
47) Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO) provides
a. Faster handoffs
b. Suitability for frequent handoffs
c. MSC need not monitor the signal strength
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
48) Trunking in a cellular network refers to
a. Termination of a call
b. Spectrum unavailability
c. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
49) When all of the radio channels are in use in a trunking system
a. The user is blocked
b. The access to the system is denied
c. The queue may be provided
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
50) Umbrella cell approach
a. Uses large and small cells
b. Uses different antenna heights
c. Is used for high speed users with large coverage area and low speed users with small coverage area
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
51) Interference in cellular systems is caused by
a. Two base stations operating in same frequency band
b. Two calls in progress in nearby mobile stations
c. Leakage of energy signals by non cellular systems into cellular frequency band
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
52) Interference in frequency bands may lead to
a. Cross talk
b. Missed calls
c. Blocked calls
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
53) Co-channel reuse ratio depends upon
a. Radius of the cell
b. Distance between the centers of the co channel cells
c. Frequency allocation of nearest cells
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
14) Increase in Co- channel reuse ratio indicates
a. Better transmission quality
b. Larger capacity
c. Low co-channel interference
d. Both a and c
e. Both a and b
ANSWER: Both a and c
55) Grade of service refers to
a. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
b. Ability of a user to access trunked system during busy hour
c. Two calls in progress in nearby mobile stations
d. High speed users with large coverage area
ANSWER: Ability of a user to access trunked system during busy hour
56) Traffic intensity is expressed in
a. Erlangs /MHz /km2
b. Erlangs
c. λ/ sec
d. dB/sec
ANSWER: Erlangs
57) The techniques used to improve the capacity of cellular systems are
a. Splitting
b. Sectoring
c. Coverage zone approach
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
58) Distributed antenna systems are used at
a. Transmitters of mobile systems
b. Transmitters of base stations
c. Inputs and outputs of repeaters
d. Receivers of mobile stations
ANSWER: Inputs and outputs of repeaters
59) Antenna down tilting refers to
a. Focusing radio energy towards ground
b. Decreasing the strength of antenna
c. Decreasing the S/N ratio at the antenna input
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Focusing radio energy towards ground
60) Diffraction, at high frequencies, depends upon
1. Geometry of the object
2. Polarization of the incident wave
3. Amplitude of the incident wave
4. Frequency of the incident wave
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
61) The rainbow pattern seen on a CD is an example of
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Diffraction
62) Fresnel Reflection Coefficient is a factor of
1. Polarization of the wave
2. Properties of the material at which reflection occurs
3. Angle of incidence of wave
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. All the three are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
ANSWER: All the three are correct
63) When a wave falls on a perfect conductor
a. Wave is partially reflected and partially transmitted
b. All incident energy is reflected back without loss of energy
c. Part of energy gets absorbed
d. Both a and c
ANSWER: All incident energy is reflected back without loss of energy
64) Brewster angle is the angle at which
a. No reflection occurs at the first medium
b. Reflection coefficient is zero
c. The wave gets refracted in the direction of source
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
65) Fading is caused due to
1. Multi path propagation
2. Obstacles
3. Frequency variations at the source
4. Variation in amplitude and phase at receiver
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 4 are correct
66) Coherence time refers to
a. Time required to attain a call with the busy base station
b. Time required for synchronization between the transmitter and the receiver
c. Minimum time for change in magnitude and phase of the channel
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Minimum time for change in magnitude and phase of the channel
67) Fading due to shadowing is
a. Fading due to large obstructions
b. Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
c. Small coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
68) Deep fade is
1. Strong destructive interference
2. Drop in signal to noise ratio
3. Temporary failure of message transfer
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
ANSWER: All are correct
69) Doppler spread refers to
a. Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel
b. Temporary failure of message transfer
c. Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel
70) Friis free space equation
1. Is an expression for noise power
2. Is a function of transmitting and receiving antenna gain
3. Depends upon the distance between transmitting and receiving antenna
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
ANSWER: 2 and 3 are correct
71) The free space model of propagation refers to
1. Unobstructed line of sight between the transmitter and receiver
2. Satellite communication systems and Microwave line of sight radio links
3. Propagation along the ground surface
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
ANSWER: 1 and 2 are correct
72) According to Friis free space equation
1. Received power falls with square of the distance between the transmitter and receiver
2. Increases with square of the distance between the transmitter and receiver
3. Received power increases with gains of transmitting and receiving antennas
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. All the three are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
ANSWER: All the three are correct
73) EIRP is
1. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
2. Maximum radiated power available by the transmitter
3. A factor of power and gain of transmitter
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. All the three are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
ANSWER: All the three are correct
74) Spread spectrum modulation involves
1. PN sequence for modulation
2. Large bandwidth
3. Multiple users
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
ANSWER: All the three are correct
75) PN sequence at the decoder acts as a locally generated carrier at the receiver and decodes the signal using
a. Correlator
b. Adder
c. Frequency divider
d. PLL
ANSWER: Correlator
76) In spread spectrum technique, the multiple users are assigned with
a. Same spectrum and same PN code
b. Same spectrum and different PN code
c. Different spectrum and different PN code
d. Different spectrum and same PN code
ANSWER: Same spectrum and different PN code
77) Advantage of using Spread Spectrum modulation is/are
1. Interference rejection capability
2. Frequency planning is not required
3. Resistance to multipath fading
4. ISI is lesser
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: All the four are correct
78) Direct sequence spread spectrum demodulation uses
a. DPSK
b. FSK
c. ASK
d. QPSK
ANSWER: DPSK
79) Fast hopping is
a. More than one frequency hop during each symbol
b. Hopping rate greater than or equal to information symbol rate
c. One or more symbols transmitted between frequency hops
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
80) Slow frequency hopping refers to
a. One or more symbols transmitted in time interval between frequency hops
b. More than one frequency hop during each symbol
c. Hopping rate greater than or equal to information symbol rate
d. Both a and c are correct
ANSWER: One or more symbols transmitted in time interval between frequency hops
81) Probability of outage refers to
a. Noise developed at the receiver
b. Number of bit errors during transmission
c. Signal to noise ratio
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Number of bit errors during transmission
82) The digital modulation technique used in frequency selective channels is
a. FSK
b. ASK
c. BPSK
d. QPSK
ANSWER: BPSK
83) Working of Adaptive Equalizers include
a. Training
b. Tracking
c. Modulation
d. Both a and b
e. All a, b and c are correct
ANSWER: Both a and b
84) The time span for which the equalizer converges depends upon
1. Equalizer algorithm
2. Equalizer structure
3. Rate of change of multipath radio channel
4. Amplitude of signal
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
85) The Linear Equalizer may be implemented as
a. FIR filter
b. Lattice filter
c. Low pass filter
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
86) Linear equalizer is also known as
a. Transversal filter
b. Lattice filter
c. Low pass filter
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Transversal filter
87) The methods used for non linear equalization are
a. Decision Feedback Equalization
b. Maximum Likelihood Symbol Detection
c. Maximum Likelihood Sequence Estimation
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. None of the above
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
88) The performance of algorithms for Adaptive Equalization are given by
1. Rate of convergence
2. Computational complexity
3. Numerical properties
4. Frequency change
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
89) Computational complexity of an algorithm refers to the
a. Number of operations for one iteration of algorithm
b. Inaccuracies in the mathematical analysis
c. Noise produced during one complete iteration of algorithm
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Number of operations for one iteration of algorithm
90) The algorithms acquired for adaptive equalization are
1. Zero forcing algorithm
2. Least mean squares algorithm
3. Recursive least squares algorithm
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. None of the above
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
91) Fractionally spaced equalizer acts as
a. Matched filter
b. Equalizer
c. Demodulator
d. Both a and b
e. All a, b and c are correct
ANSWER: Both a and b
92) Diversity employs the decision making at
a. Transmitter
b. Receiver
c. Transmitter and receiver
d. Communication channel
ANSWER: Receiver
93) The diversity schemes are based on
1. Time diversity
2. Frequency diversity
3. Space diversity
4. Polarization diversity
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: All the four are correct
94) In time diversity
a. Multiple versions of signals are transmitted at different time instants
b. The signal is transmitted using multiple channels
c. Signal is transmitted with different polarization
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Multiple versions of signals are transmitted at different time instants
95) RAKE receiver is
1. Several sub receivers
2. Several correlators
3. Fingers
4. Equalization based
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
96) The RAKE receiver involves the steps
a. Correlator, estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, bit decision
b. Estimation of transmitted signal, correlator, demodulation, bit decision
c. Estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, correlator, bit decision
d. Estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, bit decision, correlator
ANSWER: Correlator, estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, bit decision
97) Search window of a RAKE receiver is
a. Frequency band of the channel
b. Range of the time delays
c. Range of noise
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Range of the time delays
98) Speech Coders are categorized on the basis of
a. Signal compression techniques
b. Frequency of signal
c. Bandwidth of the signal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Signal compression techniques
99) Waveform coders and Vocoders are the types of
a. Speech coders
b. Modulation technique
c. Frequency translation methods
d. Channel allocation for transmission
ANSWER: Speech coders
100) PCM, DPCM, DM, ADPCM are the types of
a. Vocoders
b. Waveform coders
c. Channel allocation for transmission
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Waveform coders
101) Speech coding technique that is independent of the source is
a. Vocoders
b. Waveform coders
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Waveform coders
102) Advantage of using waveform coders is
1. Independent of the signal source
2. Less complexity
3. Suitable for noisy environments
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
ANSWER: All the three are correct
103) The type of frequency domain coding that divides the speech signal into sub bands is
a. Waveform coding
b. Vocoders
c. Block transform coding
d. Sub-band coding
ANSWER: Sub-band coding
104) The speech coding technique that is dependent on the prior knowledge of the signal is
a. Waveform coders
b. Vocoders
c. Sub band coding
d. Block transform coding
ANSWER: Vocoders
105) The steps involved in Channel vocoders for speech transmission are
a. Envelope detection, sampling, encoding, multiplexing
b. Sampling, Envelope detection, encoding, multiplexing
c. Envelope detection, encoding, sampling, multiplexing
d. Sampling, Envelope detection, multiplexing, encoding
ANSWER: Envelope detection, sampling, encoding, multiplexing
106) Vocal tract cepstral coefficients and excitation coefficients are separated by
a. Samplers
b. Linear filters
c. Encoders
d. Multiplexers
ANSWER: Linear filters
107) In voice excited vocoders, PCM transmission helps in transmission of
a. High frequency bands of speech
b. Low frequency bands of speech
c. Multiplexed signals
d. Modulated signals
ANSWER: Low frequency bands of speech
108) Linear predictive coders are based on the principle that
1. Current signal sample is obtained from linear combination of past samples
2. Current signal sample is independent of past samples
3. These are time domain vocoders
4. They are among low bit rate vocoders
a. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: 1, 3 and 4 are correct
109) Multi pulse excited LPC includes
1. Multiple pulses per period
2. Minimization of weighted mean square error
3. Better speech quality
4. Pitch detection is not required
a. 1 and 4 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct
ANSWER: All four are correct
110) In residual excited LPC,
a. The residue of subtraction of generated and original signal is quantized at the transmitter
b. Pitch detection is not required
c. Multiple pulses per period
d. Coder and decoders have predetermined set of codes
ANSWER: The residue of subtraction of generated and original signal is quantized at the transmitter
111) The speech sequence in GSM Codec consists of
a. Pre emphasis, segmentation, windowing, filtering
b. Windowing, Pre emphasis, segmentation, filtering
c. Pre emphasis, windowing, segmentation, filtering
d. Pre emphasis, segmentation, filtering, windowing
ANSWER: Pre emphasis, segmentation, windowing, filtering
112) The windowing technique used for speech coding in GSM Codec is
a. Blackman window
b. Welch window
c. Cosine window
d. Hamming window
ANSWER: Hamming window
113) The received signal at the GSM speech decoder is passed through
a. STP filter
b. LTP filter
c. Quantizer
d. PLL
ANSWER: LTP filter
114) In GSM Codec, the bits encoded for forward error correction are
a. Ia bits
b. Ib bits
c. II bits
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
115) The speech coders are selected on the basis of
1. Robustness to transmission errors
2. Cell size
3. Type of modulation technique used
4. Distance between the transmitter and receiver
a. 1 and 4 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
116) FDMA is the division of
a. Time
b. Phase
c. Spectrum
d. Amplitude
ANSWER: Spectrum
117) Guard band is
a. The small unused bandwidth between the frequency channels to avoid interference
b. The bandwidth allotted to the signal
c. The channel spectrum
d. The spectrum acquired by the noise between the signal
ANSWER: The small unused bandwidth between the frequency channels to avoid interference
118) Cable television is an example of
a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. CDMA
d. SDMA
ANSWER: FDMA
119) In FDMA,
1. Each user is assigned unique frequency slots
2. Demand assignment is possible
3. Fixed assignment is possible
4. It is vulnerable to timing problems
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d. All four are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
120) FDMA demand assignment uses
1. Single channel per carrier
2. Multi channel per carrier
3. Single transmission in one time slot
4. Multi transmission in one time slot
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d. All four are correct
ANSWER: 1 and 2 are correct
121) The advantages of FDMA over TDMA includes
1. Division is simpler
2. Propagation delays are eliminated
3. Cheaper filters with less complicated logic functions
4. Linearity
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct
ANSWER: 1 and 2 are correct
122) TDMA is a multiple access technique that has
a. Different users in different time slots
b. Each user is assigned unique frequency slots
c. Each user is assigned a unique code sequence
d. Each signal is modulated with frequency modulation technique
ANSWER: Different users in different time slots
123) In TDMA, the user occupies the whole bandwidth during transmission
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
124) TDMA allows the user to have
a. Use of same frequency channel for same time slot
b. Use of same frequency channel for different time slot
c. Use of same time slot for different frequency channel
d. Use of different time slot for different frequency channels
ANSWER: Use of same frequency channel for different time slot
125) GSM is an example of
a. TDMA cellular systems
b. FDMA cellular systems
c. CDMA cellular systems
d. SDMA cellular systems
ANSWER: TDMA cellular systems
126) TDMA is employed with a TDMA frame that has preamble. The preamble contains Address of base station and subscribers
1. Synchronization information
2. Frequency allotted
3. Coded sequence
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct
ANSWER: 1 and 2 are correct
127) CDMA is
1. Spread spectrum technology
2. Using same communication medium
3. Every user stays at a certain narrowband channel at a specific time period
4. Each user has unique PN code
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 4 are correct
128) Global Positioning System uses
a. CDMA
b. TDMA
c. SDMA
d. FDMA
ANSWER: CDMA
129) CDMA is advantageous over other Spread Spectrum techniques for
1. The privacy due to unique codes
2. It rejects narrow band interference
3. Resistance to multi path fading
4. Its ability to frequency reuse
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: All the four are correct
130) The wide band usage in CDMA helps in
1. Increased immunity to interference
2. Increased immunity to jamming
3. Multiple user access
4. Different spectrum allocation in different time slots
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
131) The advantages of using a CDMA technique over other spread spectrum techniques are
1. Increased capacity
2. Easier handoff
3. Better measure of security
4. Multiple users occupy different spectrum at a time
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 3 are correct
132) FHMA is
1. Spread spectrum technology
2. Using same communication medium
3. Every user has assigned unique frequency slot
4. Each user has unique PN code
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: All the four are correct
133) OFDM is a technique of
1. Encoding digital data
2. Multiple carrier frequencies
3. Wide band digital communication
4. 4G mobile communication
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: All the four are correct
134) Advantages of using OFDM include
1. Avoids complex equalizers
2. Low symbol rate and guard interval
3. Avoids ISI
4. Multiple users at same frequency
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: All the four are correct
135) The troubles that OFDM faces over other spread spectrum techniques are
1. Sensitivity to Doppler shift
2. Frequency synchronization problems
3. Time synchronization problems
4. Low efficiency due to guard intervals
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
ANSWER: 1, 2 and 4 are correct
136) The guard interval is provided in OFDM
a. To eliminate the need of pulse shaping filter
b. To eliminate ISI
c. High symbol rate
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
137) Packet radio refers to
a. Multiple users on single channel
b. Single user on multiple channels as per demand
c. Multiple users on multiple channels at different time slots
d. Multiple users with coding techniques
ANSWER: Multiple users on single channel
138) Disadvantages of packet radio are
a. Induced delays
b. Low spectral efficiency
c. Large spectrum required
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
139) Pure ALOHA is a
a. Random access protocol
b. Scheduled access protocol
c. Hybrid access protocol
d. Demand access protocol
ANSWER: Random access protocol
140) The increase in number of users in PURE ALOHA causes
a. Increase in delay
b. Increase in probability of collision
c. Increase in spectrum
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
ANSWER: Both a and b
141) SDMA technique employs
a. Smart antenna technology
b. Use of spatial locations of mobile units within the cell
c. More battery consumption
d. Both a and b are correct
e. Both b and c are correct
ANSWER: Both a and b are correct
142) The advantage of using SDMA over other spread spectrum technique is
a. Mobile station battery consumption is low
b. Reduced spectral efficiency
c. Increased spectral efficiency
d. Both a and b are correct
e. Both a and c are correct
ANSWER: Both a and c are correct
143) The increased capacity of SDMA is due to
a. Focused signal transmitted into narrow transmission beams
b. Smart antennas pointing towards mobile stations
c. Use of different frequencies at same time slot
d. Both a and b are correct
e. Both a and c are correct
ANSWER: Both a and b are correct
144) Coherence time is
a. Directly proportional to Doppler spread
b. Indirectly proportional to Doppler spread
c. Directly proportional to square of Doppler spread
d. Directly proportional to twice of Doppler spread
ANSWER: Directly proportional to Doppler spread
145) Types of small scale fading, based on Doppler spread are
a. Fast fading
b. Frequency non selective fading
c. Flat fading
d. Frequency selective fading
ANSWER: Fast fading
146) Flat fading or frequency nonselective fading is a type of
a. Multipath delay spread small scale fading
b. Doppler spread small scale fading
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Multipath delay spread small scale fading
147) In Frequency Selective Fading, the
a. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is less than bandwidth of transmitted channel
b. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is more than bandwidth of transmitted channel
c. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is equal to bandwidth of transmitted channel
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is less than bandwidth of transmitted channel
148) If coherence time of the channel is smaller than the symbol period of the transmitted signal, it is
a. Fast fading
b. Slow fading
c. Frequency selective fading
d. Frequency non selective fading
ANSWER: Fast fading
149) The power delay profile helps in determining
a. Excess delay
b. rms delay spread
c. Excess delay spread
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
150) Coherence bandwidth is
a. Channel that passes all spectral components with equal gain
b. The bandwidth of modulated signal
c. Channel that passes all spectral components with linear phase
d. Both a and c
e. Both a and b
ANSWER: Both a and c
151) Small scale multipath propagation is caused due to waves with
1. Different propagation delays
2. Different amplitudes
3. Different phase
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
ANSWER: All the three are correct
152) The effects of small scale multipath propagation are
1. Changes in signal strength
2. Random frequency modulation
3. Time dispersion
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
ANSWER: All the three are correct
153) Impulse response of a multipath channel is determined by the fact that
a. Mobile radio channel may be modeled as linear filter
b. Impulse response is time varying
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a & b
154) The received signal from a multipath channel is expressed as
a. Convolution of transmitted signal and impulse response
b. Addition of transmitted signal and impulse response
c. Subtraction of transmitted signal and impulse response
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
ANSWER: Convolution of transmitted signal and impulse response
155) Direct RF pulse system helps in calculating
a. Impulse response in frequency domain
b. Impulse response in phase domain
c. Power delay of the channel
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Power delay of the channel
156) The techniques used for small scale multipath measurements are
1. Direct RF pulse system
2. Spread spectrum sliding correlator channel sounding
3. Frequency domain channel sounding
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
ANSWER: All the three are correct
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PART 8
1. Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-enabled device to another:
(A) Any device
(B) Wired device
(C) Wireless-enabled device
(D) None
ANS: c
2. Which of the following is a technology that allows transmission of data, via a computer,Without having to be connected to a fixed physical link?
(A) Mobile computing
(B) Multiplexing
(C) hopping sequence
(D) FDA
ANS: A
3. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?
(A) TDMA
(B) FDMA
(C) Both a and b
(D) None
ANS: C
4. Which of the following include Challenges of mobile computing?
(A) Low Security
(B) Ad hoc Networking
(C) Shared medium
(D) All of these
ANS: D
5. Which of the following is not a control channel groups in GSM?
(A) Broadcast control channel (BCCH)
(B) Common control channel (CCCH)
(C) Decided control channel (DCCH)
(D) Dedicated control channel (DCCH)
ANS: D
Explanation: There are three main control channels in the GSM system.
These are the broadcast channel (BCH), the common control channel (CCCH)
and the dedicated control channel (DCCH). Each control channel consists
of several logical channels.
6. What is the type of network in which the topology change from time to time?
(A) Wi-Fi
(B) Cell Network
(C) LAN
(D) MANET
ANS: D
7. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for the GSM system in mobile
computing?
(A) Sim
(B) HLR
(C) ELR
(D) VLR
ANS: A
The device that usually stores all the user-related data relevant to the GSM mobile system is known as the SIM Card. A SIM Card is a kind of integrated circuit that securely holds the IMSI (or International Mobile Subscriber Identity). It can also be considered as a portable memory chip that enables users to communicate by making phone calls across the world where the subscriber's network is available.
8. Which of the following are objects that can be dynamically loaded into a client computer from a server to reduce client-server communication?
(A) Locatable objects
(B) Relocatable dynamic objects
(C) Dynamic objects
(D) None
ANS: B
9. Which of the following is the forward control channel that is used to broadcast information?
(A) BCCH
(B) CCCH
(C) DCCH
(D) TCH
ANS: A
The broadcast control channel (BCCH) is a forward channel that is used
to broadcast information such as cell and network identity, and
operating characteristics of the cell
10. Which of the following is known as the pattern of channel usage?
(A) Mobile computing
(B) Multiplexing
(C) hopping sequence
(D) FDA
ANS:
11. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?
(A) Home location register
(B) Visitor location register
(C) Entity equipment register
(D) None of these
ANS:
12. US digital cellular system based on CDMA was standardized as ________
(A) IS-54
(B) IS-136
(C) IS-95
(D) IS-76
ANS:
13. _____________ are segment of the market for mobile and wireless device which are growing most rapidly.
(A) hopping sequence
(B) Digital cellular networks
(C) Multiplexing
(D) Mobile computing
ANS:
14. Which of the following segments a TCP connection into a fixed part and a wireless part?
(A) Indirect TCP
(B) Direct TCP
(C) Both a and b
(D) None
ANS:
15. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are :
(A) Mobility
(B) Portability
(C) Wireless connectivity
(D) All of these
16. Who sets the standards of GSM?
(A) ITU
(B) AT & T
(C) ETSI
(D) USDC
17. Which of the following are the characteristics of mobile computing?
(A) Limiting resource
(B) availability
(C) High mobility
(D) All of these
18. Why neighbouring stations are assigned different group of channels in cellular system?
(A) To minimize interference
(B) To minimize area
(C) To maximize throughput
(D) To maximize capacity of each cell
19. What is frequency reuse?
(A) Process of selection of mobile users
(B) Process of selecting and allocating channels
(C) Process of selecting frequency of mobile equipment
(D) Process of selection of number of cells
20. What is the nominal range of Bluetooth?
(A) 1 km
(B) 10 Km
(C) 10 m
(D) 1 m
21. Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?
(A) Packet switched protocols
(B) Emergency calling
(C) Standard mobile telephony
(D) Call diversion
22. Bluetooth standard is named after ___________
(A) King Ronaldo Bluetooth
(B) Pope Vincent Bluetooth
(C) King Herald Bluetooth
(D) Pope Francis Bluetooth
23. Bluetooth operates in which band?
(A) Ka Band
(B) L Band
(C) Ku Band
(D) 2.4 GHz ISM Band
24. Which of the following is not an advantage of WLANs?
(A) Flexibility
(B) Robustness
(C) Slow speed
(D) Less cost
25. In Bluetooth which of the following device follow the hopping sequence?
(A) Master
(B) Parked
(C) Standby
(D) Slave
26. Which of the following supports the operation and maintenance of GSM?
(A) BSS
(B) NSS
(C) OSS
(D) MSC
27. What is the main function of snooping TCP ?
(A) To buffer data close to the mobile host to perform fast local retransmission in case of packet loss.
(B) Congestion control
(C) Flow control
(D) None of the above
28. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data between a variety of fixed and
mobile devices over a very short diameter?
(A) Mobile technology
(B) Bluetooth technology
(C) Ad hoc computing
(D) None of these
29. Which of the following TCP protocol is specially adapted when the problems arising from lengthy or
frequent disconnections?
(A) Mobile TCP
(B) Snooping
(C) I-TCP
(D) None of these
30. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over the cellular network system?
(A) GSM
(B) GPRS
(C) TCP
(D) None of the above
31. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?
(A) Master
(B) Parked
(C) Standby
(D) Slave
32. Which of the following combine packets for connection establishment and connection release with user
data packets?
(A) Transaction oriented TCP
(B) Indirect TCP
(C) Snooping TCP
(D) none
33. Why probe packets are transmitted in the network?
(A) to know about the capacity of the channel
(B) to count the number of host in the network
(C) to know about efficiency of the routing algorithm
(D) to know about the congestion
34. IS-95 is specified for reverse link operation in _________ band.
(A) 869-894 MHz
(B) 849-894 MHz
(C) 849-869 MHz
(D) 824-849 MHz
35. Which of the following is a routing protocol for wireless mesh networks?
(A) Dynamic Source Routing (DSR)
(B) Dynamic Private Routing (DSR)
(C) Distance Source Routing (DSR)
(D) Dynamic Soft Resource (DSR)
36. Which of the following allows for non-blocking RPCs even when a host is disconnected?
(A) Queued remote procedure calls
(B) Remote procedure calls
(C) Both a and b
(D) None
37. Which of the following scheme is used by Bluetooth?
(A) Frequency hopping TDD scheme
(B) Frequency hopping FDD scheme
(C) DSSS TDD scheme
(D) DSSS FDD scheme
38. Which modulation scheme is used by Bluetooth?
(A) DQPSK
(B) MSK
(C) GFSK
(D) BPSK
39. A spectrum of
30 MHz is allocated to a cellular system which uses two 25 KHz simplex channels to provide full duplex voice channels. What is the number of channels available per cell for 4 cell reuse factor?
(A) 150 channels
(B) 600 channels
(C) 50 channels
(D) 85 channels
40. Commonly used mode for 3G networks is:
(A) TDMA
(B) FDMA
(C) TDD
(D) FDD
41. The interference between the neighboring base stations is avoided by:
(A) Assigning different group of channels
(B) Using transmitters with different power level
(C) Using different antennas
(D) All of these
42. The advantage of using frequency reuse is:
(A) Increased capacity
(B) Limited spectrum is required
(C) Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
(D) All of these
43. Spectrum Efficiency of a cellular network is:
(A) The traffic carried by whole network
(B) The traffic carried per cell divided by the bandwidth of the system and the area of a cell
(C) Expressed in Erlang /MHz /km2
(D) Both b) and c)
44. In Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO), the handoff takes place when
(A) The power received by the mobile station from other base station is more than the serving base station
(B) The channel allocated is not available
(C) The mobile station has no signal
(D) All of these
45. TDMA is a multiple access technique that has:
(A) Each user is assigned unique frequency slots
(B) Different users in different time slots
(C) Each user is assigned a unique code sequence
(D) Each signal is modulated with frequency modulation technique
b
46. Which of the following is widely used technology for wireless communication systems.known as Fixed
Wireless Loop?
(A) CDMA
(B) GSM
(C) Wireless in Local Loop (WLL)
(D) GPRS
47. The speech sequence in GSM Codec consists of:
(A) Pre emphasis, segmentation, windowing, filtering
(B) windowing, Pre emphasis, segmentation, filtering
(C) Pre emphasis, windowing, segmentation, filtering
(D) Pre emphasis, segmentation, filtering, windowing
48. CDMA is
1. Spread spectrum technology 2. Using same communication medium
3. every user stays at a
certain narrowband channel at a specific time period
4. each user has unique PN code
(A) 1,2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) All the four correct
49. 6. State whether True of False. i) In GSM only TDMA is used. ii) There is zero inter-channel interference
in CDMA.
(A) True, False
(B) False, True
(C) False, False
(D) True, True
50. Mobile commerce transactions targets to individuals in specific locations, at specific times:
(A) Location-Based Commerce (L-Commerce)
(B) Personal Area Network (PAN)
(C) Near-Field Communication (NFC)
(D) Mobile Commerce (M-Commerce)
51. UMTS stands for
(A) Universal Mobility telephonic system
(B) Universa l Mobile telephone System (c)
(C) Universal Mobile Telecommunication System
(D) None of these
52. GSM is an example of
(A) TDMA cellular systems
(B) FDMA cellular systems
(C) CDMA cellular systems
(D) SDMA cellular systems
a
53. VLR and HLR in GSM systems are___________
(A) Gateways for outer connectivity
(B) Databases of registered users
(C) Routers and call management servers
(D) System setup files.
54. A network composed of motes in the physical environment that "wake up" at intervals to transmit data to
their nearest neighbor mote
(A) Mobile Portal
(B) Mesh Network
(C) Bluetooth
(D) Hotspot
55. GPRS needs the following parts of a typical GSM
(A) Does not need any part of GSM
(B) The packet-switched core for data transmission
(C) The circuit-switched core for localization and authentication
(D) None of these
56. The advantages of using a CDMA technique over other spread spectrum techniques are:
1. Increased capacity 2. Easier handoff
3. Better measure of security
4. Multiple users occupy different spectrum at a
time
(A) 1,2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) All the four correct
57. TDMA allows the user to have
(A) Use of same frequency channel for same time slot
(B) Use of same frequency channel for different time slot
(C) Use of same time slot for different frequency channel
(D) Use of different time slot for different frequency channels
b
58. Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO) provides:
(A) Faster handoffs
(B) Suitability for frequent handoffs
(C) MSC need not monitor the signal strength
(D) All of the above
59. In AODV routing algorithm for MANETs, the route is discovered at time:
(A) only when the network is established
(B) in middle of the transmission
(C) when there is no need for route by the host
(D) when there is a need for route by the host
60. What is the routing algorithm used in MANETs?
(A) Shortest Path First
(B) Routing Information Protocol
(C) Distance Vector Protocol
(D) Ad hoc On -demand Distance Vector Protocol
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